THÔNG BÁO DANH SÁCH SV CHUYỂN KHOẢN LỆ PHÍ THI

Sinh viên nào đã chuyển khoản lệ phí thi nhưng không có tên trong danh sách thi thì liên hệ gấp về sdt: 02363.650413

THÔNG BÁO KHAI GIẢNG LỚP TH11Lớp TH8 khai giảng vào thứ 3 ngày 24/12/2024

THÔNG BÁO KHAI GIẢNG LỚP TH12Lớp TH12 khai giảng vào thứ 2 ngày 23/12/2024

DANH SÁCH KHẢO SÁT TIẾNG ANH NGÀY 01/12/2024Danh sách thi Toeic có 3 sheet: DS THI NÓI; DS THI NGHE ĐỌC; DS THI VIẾT (THI CẢ NGÀY); SV XEM KỸ ĐỊA ĐIỂM THI; PHÒNG THI MÃ SỐ SINH VIÊN để đi thi.

Đăng ký online

Tài liệu học tập

(17/04/2023 08:24:02 AM)

Đề thi thử TOEFL ITP số 13 (ĐÁP ÁN CUỐI BÀI)

Section One: Listening Comprehension

1. (A) She'll get the things the man needs.

(B) Sally wants to go to the bookstore too.

(D) The student center closes at four o'clock.

2. (A) He doesn't feel qualified for the job.

(B) He'd like a higher salary.

(D) He'd like to be able to work more hours per week.

3. (A) Try to get a ride with Pete.

(B) Take an airplane to Boston.

(D) Drive her car to Boston.

4. (A) She'll give the man the newspaper after class.

(B) She doesn't read the newspaper for her class.

(D) She only reads one section of the newspaper.

5. (A) His roommate doesn't like to talk much.

(B) He's upset with his roommate.

(D) He doesn't want the woman to be friendly with his roommate.

6. (A) The book was very interesting.

(B) He hasn't read the book yet.

(D) He doesn't usually read spy thrillers.

7. (A) She hurt her foot.

(B) Her health problem has come back again.

(D) She needs an operation soon.

8. (A) He has been working outdoors lately.

(B) He'd like to get some exercise over the weekend.

(D) He rarely uses his computer.

9. (A) More doctors should be doing research.

(B) He is studying to be a doctor.

(D) He has already tried the new medicine.

10. (A) She couldn't find her watch.

(B) She feels bad about being late.

(D) She had never agreed to meet the man.

11. (A) She's a professional photographer.

(B) She'll take the camera to her car before the concert.

(D) She's concerned about leaving the camera with the man.

12. (A) Decide against sending the application.

(B) Order his checks by mail.

(D) Buy a money order to send with the application.

13. (A) She's too busy to run for class president.

(B) She hasn't considered running for class president.

(D) She wants the man to help her with her studies.

14. (A) She wants the man to meet her brother

(B) She's going to Chicago with her brother

(D) She can't accept the man's invitation.

15. (A) The books were sent out late.

(B) The books were sent to the wrong place.

(D) He doesn't know the woman's new address.

16. (A) It's approximately twelve o'clock.

(B) She'll meet the man at exactly twelve o'clock.

(D) She doesn't have time to talk.

17. (A) The woman's meal tastes better than his.

(B) The woman shouldn't eat her food.

(D) The woman and he should go to another restaurant.

18. (A) Mary had a long drive to the airport.

(B) His flight arrived late.

(D) His flight took three hours.

19. (A) He doesn't want the woman to fill out the survey form.

(B) He just got the results of the survey.

(D) He hadn't heard about the survey.

20. (A) She has been on the trip herself and has enjoyed it.

(B) She wouldn't consider going on the field trip.

(D) She thinks there's a good reason to go on the field trip.

21. (A) Watch the news on TV.

(B) Turn the TV on at six o'clock.

(D) Watch another comedy show.

22. (A) She hasn't prepared the course outline yet.

(B) She'll distribute the course outline during the next class.

(D) The man can get the course outline after class.

23. (A) He had planned to attend Jason's presentation but couldn't.

(B)He preferred Jason's previous presentation.

(D) Jason won't give any more presentations.

24. (A) She might know someone who needs a car.

(B) She doesn't know many people.

(D) She'll try to borrow a car from one of her friends.

25. (A) He doesn't know the answer to the question.

(B) He doesn't like to travel in the area.

(D) He'll ask someone else for directions.

26. (A) She's worried about the approaching snowstorm.

(B) She won't have time to go outside tomorrow.

(D) She's pleased about the weather report.

27. (A) He always liked reading more than watching television.

(B) He used to watch television more than he does now.

(D) The woman should do more reading.

28. (A) He thinks the woman looks better in the green hat.

(B) He wants the woman to buy both hats,

(D) He doesn't care which hat the woman chooses.

29. (A) The shirt belongs to her sister.

(B) The shirt was purchased during a trip.

(D) The shirt is her favorite color.

30. (A) He wants to get a job in a smaller company.

(B) He's looking forward to working on the West Coast.

(D) He expects his company to promote him soon.

31. (A) Two different types of bones in the human body.

(B) How bones help the body move.

(D) The chemical composition of human bones.

32. (A) They defend the bone against viruses.

(B) They prevent oxygen from entering the bone.

(D) They connect the bone to muscle tissue.

33. (A) They have difficulty identifying these cells.

(B) They aren't sure how these cells work.

(D) They've found similar cells in other species.

34. (A) To learn how to prevent a bone disease.

(B) To understand differences between bone tissue and other tissue.

(D) To create artificial bone tissue.

35. (A) A new fuel for buses.

(B) The causes of air pollution.

(D) Careers in environmental engineering.

36. (A) Her car is being repaired.

(B) She wants to help reduce pollution.

(D) The cost of fuel has increased.

37. (A) A fuel that bums cleanly.

(B) An oil additive that helps cool engines.

(D) An insulating material sprayed on engine parts.

38. (A) The high temperatures required for its use.

(B) The high cost of materials used in its production.

(D) The opposition of automobile manufacturers.

39. (A) To present an award to a musician.

(B) To thank the organizers of "Time Out for the Arts."

(D) To introduce the guest speaker for the evening.

40. (A) The pianist is an old friend of hers.

(B) Many people have come to the presentation.

(D) She enjoys going to concerts.

41. (A) When he was a child.

(B) When he finished his studies.

(D) When he was invited to a musical competition.

42. (A) Discuss his experiences on the concert tour.

(B) Explain why he agreed to give the lecture.

(D) Talk about how he learned to compose music.

43. (A) The effect of advertising on world markets.

(B) Modem advertising techniques.

(D) The early history of advertising.

44. (A) An educated population.

(B) A large supply of goods and services.

(D) An industrialized society.

45. (A) Samples of products.

(B) Signs on shops.

(D) Free paper pamphlets.

46. (A) How the President proposes new laws.

(B) How a bill is passed by lawmakers in Congress.

(D) How lawmakers can force the President to sign a bill.

47. (A) Why the President opposes a bill.

(B) How lawmakers want to revise a bill.

(D) When lawmakers plan to end their session.

48. (A) They send the message to the President within ten days.

(B) They officially state reasons for rejecting the message.

(D) They revise the vetoed bill.

49. (A) The bill becomes law immediately.

(B) The bill can't become law unless the whole process begins again.

(D) The President must sign the 'bill if it's passed again.

50. (A) Just after a new President is elected.

(B) Just before Congress takes any short break.

(D) Anytime during a session of Congress.

Section Two: Structure and Written Expression

1.__of pottery is dependent on the durability of clay after firing.

(A)To make

(B)The making

(C)When to make

(D)It is making

2.Pig iron, wrought iron, and steel contain iron carbides made up of __ of carbon.

(A) amounts are different

(B) different amounts that

(D) which amounts are different

3.The Arctic fox is found throughout the Arctic , usually on tundra or mountains __ the sea.

(A) by which near

(B) near of

(D) near

4.The midge __ to any of several species of small flies, refers to a mosquito-like insect with slender wings and body, long legs, and antennae.

(A)which a term applied

(B)a term applied

(C)is a term applied

(D)applied a term

5. The face is the most __ of a human being.

(A)part is distinctly

(B)distinction in part

(C)distinctive part

(D)part of distinction

6.The chemical facts __ as a by-product of their search for gold became the basis for modem chemistry.

(A)that had been accumulated by alchemists

(B)were accumulated by alchemists

(C)alchemists accumulating them

(D)had been accumulated by alchemists

7.The fluoroscope makes __ for medical doctors to view a silhouette of the bones and internal organs of a patient's body.

(A)being possible

(B)possibly

(C)it is possible

(D)it possible

8.The second-oldest continuously occupied governor's mansion in the United States __ Jackson, Mississippi.

(A) the location in

(B) is the location

(D) located in

9.A television camera produces an image by convening __ receives into a series of bright and dark dots.

(A) and it

(B) it

(D) that it

10.In so-called nonfiction novels, a documentary style is combined with fictional techniques __actual events and people.

(A)that they describe

(B)to describe

(C)and in describing

(D)are describing

11.Managers often receive considerable training in the "technical" aspects of their jobs __ very little in the "people management" aspects.

(A)so

(B)just as

(C)yet

(D)and that

12.Areas of fertile soil called deltas, usually __ are formed by mud deposited at the mouth of a river.

(A)triangular in shape

(B)their shape is triangular

(C)they have a triangular shape

(D)triangular shape

13.Though a respected educator, Alexander Graham Bell __ the inventor of the telephone.

(A)as is best known

(B)best known as is

(C)is best known as

(D)best is known as

14. Not until the First World War __ to improve the road system in the United States.

(A)a determined effort was made

(B)made a determined effort

(C)when a determined effort was made

(D)was a determined effort made

15. Often invisible, always in motion, gas is __ of matter.

(A)the state is most energetic

(B)stating the most energetic

(C)the most energetic state

(D)the state that most energetic

16. Some fish have whiskers, which are sensory organs used for touching and tasting,

A B

and which are helpful when are they searching for food in sand and mud.

C D

17.Cement is produced commercially by to heat a mixture of limestone and clay

A B

in a large, slowly rotating cylindrical furnace.

C D

18.In addition to appropriating the subject matter of mass culture, the pop art movement

A B

of the 1950's utilized various technique of mass production.

C D

19. Practical problems limit the ability of astronomers to determine the mass

A B

of asteroids, who are small planetary bodied orbiting the Sun.

C D

20.An accomplished saxophonist and composer, John Coltrane begun his career playing

A B C

in the big bands of the early 1950's.

21.Bacteria and similar one-celled organisms reproduce by cell division, each of the daughter

cell then beginning a new life as a distinct organism.

B C D

22.Many species of birds that breed in temperate latitudes often show particular patterns

A B C

of migration while the year.

23.Quebec, the most oldest city in Canada, lies on the north bank of the St. Lawrence

A B C D

River.

24.Because of the need to maintain the correct balance of salts and minerals in the water,

A B

keeping saltwater fish in aquariums requires more work that keeping freshwater fish.

C D

25. Addressing themes that were unique American, the poet Walt Whitman celebrated

A B C

the lives of ordinary people.

26.Many museums have been founded by private benefactors, and a few have received

A B

endowments that help to support theirs routine operations.

C D

27.The Bessemer process for converting iron to steel was invention of enormous importance

A B

because it led to many significant changes in industrial processes.

C D

28. Painters have been portraying the sea for centuries, and in the United States a

A B

rich tradition of marine painting been developed during the nineteenth century.

C D

29.The city of Memphis, Tennessee, was a important Confederate military center during

A B

the American Civil War and served as the temporary state capital in 1862.

C D

30. Although all sedimentary rocks contain iron, but the deposits that are richest in iron

A B

consist predominantly of minerals such as iron oxides, carbonates, silicates, and sulfides.

C D

31.In the United States, the attorney general is a cabinet member in charge with the

A B C

administration of the Department of Justice.

32.The Atlantic cable, which began to operating in 1866,linked the United States to London

and to another cable stretching eastward to India and beyond.

B C D

33. Many folk songs were originated to accompany manual work or to mark a

A B C

specific ceremonies.

34.The shell of the abalone, a marine snail, is especially suited by its hardness and

A B

various of colors for the manufacture of jewelry.

C D

35.Geraldine Farrar, who debuted as an opera singer in 1901,later appeared both on

A B C

stage and in several silent film.

36.The migration of African Americans from the rural South to the industrial North in

the early 1900's were the biggest internal migration in American history.

　 B C D

37.Searching for alternate forms of energy does not necessary mean the abandonment

A B C

of fossil fuels as an energy source.

38. The flamingo constructs a cylindrical mud nest for its egg, which both parents

A B C

care for it.

39. Due to persistent inbreeding, self-pollinating plants have genetically more uniform

A B

than cross-pollinated plants, which harbor more genetic variability.

C D

40. Metaphysical philosophy is concerned with the principles, structures, and

A B

meaningful that underlie all observable reality.

C D

Section Three: Reading Comprehension

Questions 1-9

The term "folk song" has been current for over a hundred years, but there is still a

good deal of disagreement as to what it actually means. The definition provided by the

International Folk Music Council states that folk music is the music of ordinary people,

Line which is passed on from person to person by being listened to rather than learned from

(5) the printed page. Other factors that help shape a folk song include: continuity (many

performances over a number of years); variation (changes in words and melodies either

through artistic interpretation or failure of memory); and selection (the acceptance of a

song by the community in which it evolves).

When songs have been subjected to these processes their origin is usually impossible

(10) to trace. For instance, if a farm laborer were to make up a song and sing it to a-couple of

friends who like it and memorize it, possibly when the friends come to sing it themselves

one of them might forget some of the words and make up new ones to fill the gap, while"

the other, perhaps more artistic, might add a few decorative touches to the tune and

improve a couple of lines of text. If this happened a few times there would be many

(15) different versions, the song's original composer would be forgotten, and the song would

become common property. This constant reshaping and re-creation is the essence of folk

music. Consequently, modem popular songs and other published music, even though

widely sung by people who are not professional musicians, are not considered folk music.

The music and words have been set by a printed or recorded source, limiting scope for

(20) further artistic creation. These songs' origins cannot be disguised and therefore they

belong primarily to the composer and not to a community.

The ideal situation for the creation of folk music is an isolated rural community. In

such a setting folk songs and dances have a special purpose at every stage in a person's

life, from childhood to death. Epic tales of heroic deeds, seasonal songs relating to

(25) calendar events, and occupational songs are also likely to be sung.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Themes commonly found in folk music

(B) Elements that define folk music

(D) The standards of the International Folk Music Council

2. Which of the following statements about the term "folk song" is supported by the passage?

(A) It has been used for several centuries.

(B) The International Folk Music Council invented it.

(D) There is disagreement about its meaning.

3. The word "it" in line 8 refers to

(A) community

(B) song

(D) memory

4. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a characteristic of the typical folk

song?

(A) It is constantly changing over time.

(B) it is passed on to other people by being performed.

(D) It appeals to many people.

5. The word "subjected" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) reduced

(B) modified

(D) imitated

6. The author mentions the farm laborer and his friends (lines 10-14) in order to do which of the

following?

(A) Explain how a folk song evolves over time

(B) Illustrate the importance of music to rural workers

(D) Demonstrate how a community, chooses a folk song

7. According to the passage, why would the original composers of folk songs be forgotten?

(A) Audiences prefer songs composed by professional musicians.

(B) Singers dislike the decorative touches in folk song tunes.

(D) Folk songs are not considered an important form of music.

8. The word "essence" in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) basic nature

(B) growing importance

(D) first phase

9. The author mentions that published music is not considered to be folk music because

(A) the original composer can be easily identified

(B) the songs attract only the young people in a community

(D) the composers write the music in rural communities

Questions 10-20

Long before they can actually speak, babies pay special attention to the speech they

hear around them. Within the first month of their lives, babies' responses to the sound of

the human voice will be different from their responses to other sorts of auditory stimuli.

Line They will stop crying when they hear a person talking, but not if they hear a bell or the

(5) sound of a rattle. At first, the sounds that an infant notices might be only those words that

receive the heaviest emphasis and that often occur at the ends of utterances. By the time

they are six or seven weeks old, babies can detect the difference between syllables

pronounced with rising and falling inflections. Very soon, these differences in adult stress

and intonation can influence babies' emotional states and behavior. Long before they

(10) develop actual language comprehension, babies can sense when an adult is playful or

angry, attempting to initiate or terminate new behavior, and so on, merely on the basis of

cues such as the rate, volume, and melody of adult speech.

Adults make it as easy as they can for babies to pick up a language by exaggerating

such cues. One researcher observed babies and their mothers in six diverse cultures and

(15) found that, in all six languages, the mothers used simplified syntax, short utterances and

nonsense sounds, and transformed certain sounds into baby talk. Other investigators have

noted that when mothers talk to babies who are only a few months old, they exaggerate

the pitch, loudness, and intensity of their words. They also exaggerate their facial

expressions, hold vowels longer, and emphasize certain words.

(20) More significant for language development than their response to general intonation is

observation that tiny babies can make relatively fine distinctions between speech sounds.

other words, babies enter the world with the ability to make precisely those perceptual

discriminations that are necessary if they are to acquire aural language.

Babies obviously derive pleasure from sound input, too: even as young as nine months

(25) they will listen to songs or stories, although the words themselves are beyond their

understanding. For babies, language is a sensory-motor delight rather than the route to

prosaic meaning that it often is for adults.

10.What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) How babies differentiate between the sound of the human voice and other sounds

(B) The differences between a baby's and an adult's ability to comprehend language

(D) The response of babies to sounds other than the human voice

11. Why does the author mention a bell and a rattle in lines 4-5 ?

(A) To contrast the reactions of babies to human and nonhuman sounds

(B) To give examples of sounds that will cause a baby to cry

(D) To give examples of typical toys that babies do not like

12. Why does the author mention syllables pronounced with rising and falling inflections in lines

7-8 ?

(A) To demonstrate how difficult it is for babies to interpret emotions

(B) To illustrate that a six-week-old baby can already distinguish some language differences

(D) To give a reason for babies' difficulty in distinguishing one adult from another

13. The word "diverse" in line 14 is closest in meaning to

(A) surrounding

(B) divided

(D) stimulating

14.. The word "noted" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

(A) theorized

(B) requested

(D) observed

15. The word "They" in line 18 refers to

(A) mothers

(B) investigators

(D) words

16. The passage mentions all of the following as ways adults modify their speech when talking to

babies EXCEPT

(A) giving all words equal emphasis

(B) speaking with shorter sentences

(D) using meaningless sounds

17. The word "emphasize" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) stress

(B) repeat

(D) leave out

18. Which of the following can be inferred about the findings described in paragraph 2 ?

(A) Babies who are exposed to more than one language can speak earlier than babies exposed

to a single language.

(B) Mothers from different cultures speak to their babies in similar ways.

(D) The mothers observed by the researchers were consciously teaching their babies to speak.

19. What point does the author make to illustrate that babies are born with the ability to acquire

language?

(A) Babies begin to understand words in songs.

(B) Babies exaggerate their own sounds and expressions.

(D) Babies notice even minor differences between speech sounds.

20. According to the author, why do babies listen to songs and stories, even though they cannot

understand them?

(A) They understand the rhythm.

(B) They enjoy the sound.

(D) They focus on the meaning of their parents' words.

Questions 21-29

Under the Earth's topsoil, at various levels, sometimes under a layer of rock, there are

deposits of clay. Look at cuts where highways have been built to see exposed clay beds; or

look at a construction site, where pockets of clay may be exposed. Rivers also reveal clay

Line along their banks, and erosion on a hillside may make clay easily accessible.

(5) What is clay made of? The Earth's surface is basically rock, and it is this rock that

gradually decomposes into clay. Rain, streams, alternating freezing and thawing, roots of

trees and plants forcing their way into cracks, earthquakes, volcanic action, and glaciers--all

of these forces slowly break down the Earth's exposed rocky crust into smaller and smaller

pieces that eventually become clay.

(10) Rocks are composed of elements and compounds of elements. Feldspar, which is the

most abundant mineral on the Earth's surface, is basically made up of the oxides silica and

alumina combined with alkalies like potassium and some so-called impurities such as iron.

Feldspar is an essential component of granite rocks, and as such it is the basis of clay.

When it is wet, clay can be easily shaped to make a variety of useful objects, which can

(15) then be fired to varying degrees of hardness and covered with impermeable decorative

coatings of glasslike material called glaze. Just as volcanic action, with its intense heat,

fuses the elements in certain rocks into a glasslike rock called obsidian, so can we apply

heat to earthen materials and change them into a hard, dense material. Different clays need

different heat levels to fuse, and some, the low-fire clays, never become nonporous and

(20) watertight like highly fired stoneware. Each clay can stand only a certain amount of heat

without losing its shape through sagging or melting. Variations of clay composition and the

temperatures at which they are fired account for the differences in texture and appearance

between a china teacup and an earthenware flowerpot.

21. The author's main point in paragraph 1 is that clay deposits

(A) conceal layers of rock

(B) can be found in various places

(D) must be removed from construction sites

22. It can be inferred from the passage that clay is LEAST likely to be plentiful in which of the

following areas?

(A) In desert sand dunes

(B) In forests

(D) Near rivers

23. The word "accessible" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) buried

(B) improved

(D) workable

24. According to the passage, rock breaks down into clay under all of the following conditions

EXCEPT when

(A) it is exposed to freezing and thawing

(B) roots of trees force their way into cracks

(D) natural forces wear away the Earth's crust

25. Why does the author mention feldspar in line 10?

(A) It is often used as a substitute for clay.

(B) It is damaged by the oxides in clay.

(D) It is a major component of clay.

26. The word "it" in line 13 refers to

(A) iron

(B) feldspar

(D) clay

27. Based on the information in the passage, it can be inferred that low-fire clays are MOST

appropriate for making objects that

(A) must be strong

(B) can be porous

(D) are highly decorated

28. The phrase "account for" in line 22 is closest in meaning to

(A) reduce

(B) explain

(D) list all of

29. The passage supports which of the following conclusions?

(A) Clay deposits are only found deep in the Earth.

(B) If clay contains too much iron it will melt when fired.

(D) If sufficient heat is applied, all clay will become nonporous.

Questions 30-40

The smooth operation of an ant colony depends on ten to twenty different signals,

most of which are pheromones (chemical signals triggering behavioral responses). It is

estimated that red fire ants employ at least twelve different chemical signals. The simples

Line of these is the carbon dioxide from the respiration of an ant cluster, a chemical that acts as

(5) a pheromone to promote aggregation. Workers move toward a source of carbon dioxide,

resulting in solitary ants moving to join a group. At the other extreme, the most complex

of the fire ants' signals is probably colony odor, by which the workers of a particular

colony or nest identify another worker as local or foreign. Each ant nest has its own odor

as a result of its location, history, and local food supply. The resident ants pick up this

(10) odor on their bodies, so that ants of the same species, but from different nests, have

different colony odors. This allows ants to identify intruders and maintain colony

integrity.

Fire ants also make use of an alarm pheromone to alert workers to an emergency,

and their scouts lay down a trail pheromone as a guide during mass migrations. A fire ant

(15) queen emits a chemical signal that identifies her to the colony's workers. They respond

by scurrying to gather around her. The decomposing corpse of a dead ant also generates

a signal, to which workers respond by eliminating the corpse from the nest.

Ants provide examples of both public (accessible to other species) and private

messages. One of their most important private messages concerns food, for a food source

(20) is worth keeping secret. Each species marks its trails with signals that are meaningless to

others, so that an ant crossing a trail left by another ant species typically notices nothing.

On the other hand, a secret signal to mark a dead body is unnecessary. Many kinds of ants

perceive a natural decomposition product of dead insects as a signal to remove a corpse.

If an outsider recognizes this message and moves the body, no harm is done.

30. What aspect of ants does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The relationship between the queen and the worker ants

(B) Ways in which ants use chemical signals

(D) The importance of respiration in the production of ant pheromones

31. The phrase "smooth operation" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) daily activity

(B) effective functioning

(D) permanent location

32. According to the passage, carbon dioxide serves which of the following functions for fire ants?

(A) It protects the queen.

(B) It attracts other ant species.

(D) It encourages the ants to gather together.

33. The word "cluster" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) organ

(B) activity

(D) cycle

34.According to the passage, each nest has a distinct odor that allows its inhabitants to

(A) find the location of the nest in the dark

(B) distinguish worker ants from other ants

(D) signal other inhabitants when foreign ants attack

35. The word "alert" in line 13 is closest in meaning to

(A) allow

(B) transport

(D) provide

36. What is the role of pheromones in the mass migrations of ants?

(A) Pheromones are used to create a trail that directs the ants during migrations.

(B) Pheromones signal the ants that the nest has been invaded and must be

abandoned.

(D) Pheromones enable scouts to identify suitable areas for establishing a new nest.

37. The word "scurrying" in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) agreeing

(B) appearing

(D) rushing

38. The word "others" in line 21 refers to

(A) private messages

(B) species

(D) signals

39. Why does the author mention "dead insects" in line 23 ?

(A) To compare the social behaviors of ants with those of other insects

(B) To emphasize the dangers that all insects encounter

(D) To indicate a behavior that is common among various kinds of ants

40. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?

(A) pheromones (line 2)

(B) colony integrity (lines 11-12)

(D) private messages (lines 18-19)

Questions 41-50

The Homestead Act of 1862 gave beads of families or individuals aged twenty-one or

older the right to own 160 acres of public land in the western United States after five years

of residence and improvement. This law was intended to provide land for small farmers

Line and to prevent land from being bought for resale at a profit or being owned by large

(5) landholders. An early amendment to the act even prevented husbands and wives from

filing separate claims. The West, land reformers had assumed, would soon contain many

160-acre family farms.

They were doomed to disappointment. Most landless Americans were too poor to

become farmers even when they could obtain land without cost. The expense of moving a

(10) family to the ever-receding frontier exceeded the means of many, and the cost of tools,

draft animals, a wagon, a well, fencing, and of building the simplest house, might come

to $1,000---a formidable barrier. As for the industrial workers for whom the free land was

supposed to provide a "safety valve," they had neither the skills nor the inclination to

become farmers. Homesteaders usually came from districts not far removed from frontier

(15) conditions. And despite the intent of the law, speculators often managed to obtain large

tracts. They hired people to stake out claims, falsely swear that they had fulfilled the

conditions laid down in the law for obtaining legal title, and then deed the land over to

their employers.

Furthermore, 160 acres were not enough for raising livestock or for the kind of

(20) commercial agriculture that was developing west of the Mississippi. The national

government made a feeble attempt to make larger holdings available to homesteaders

by passing the Timber Culture Act of 1873, which permitted individuals to claim an

additional 160 acres if they would agree to plant a quarter of it in trees within ten years.

This law proved helpful to some farmers in the largely treeless states of Kansas,

(25) Nebraska, and the Dakotas. Nevertheless, fewer than 25 percent of the 245,000 who

took up land under the Act obtained final title to the property.

41. Which aspect of the Homestead Act of

1862 does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) How it transformed the western United States into a place of small farms

(B) Why it was an improvement over previous attempts at land reform

(D) How it failed in the largely treeless states of Kansas, Nebraska, and the Dakotas

42. An amendment added to the Homestead Act of 1862 specified that

(A) five years of residence was required for landownership

(B) husbands and wives could not file separate claims

(D) land could not be resold for a profit

43. The word "formidable" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

(A) obvious

(B) predictable

(D) manageable

44. It can be inferred that the "safety valve" in line 13 refers to

(A) a new kind of machinery

(B) an alternative for urban workers

(D) a procedure designed to protect workers

45. The word "intent" in line 15 is closest in meaning to

(A) purpose

(B) power

(D) invention

46. According to the passage, why did the government pass the Timber Culture Act of 1873 ?

(A) To make larger tracts of land available to small farmers

(B) To settle Kansas, Nebraska, and the Dakotas

(D) To increase the variety of trees growing in the western states

47. The word "they" in line 23 refers to

(A) larger holdings

(B) individuals

(D) trees

48. According to the passage, how many of the farmers who settled land under the Timber Culture

Act of 1873 received final title to the property?

(A) Fewer than 25%

(B) More than 160

(D) 245,000

49. The passage mentions all of the following as reasons the Homestead Act of 1862 did not

achieve its aims EXCEPT:

(A) Most landless Americans could not afford the necessary tools and provisions.

(B) Industrial workers lacked the necessary fanning skills.

(D) Homesteaders usually came from areas relatively close to the frontier.

50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the Timber Culture Act of 1873?

(A) It especially helped farmers with large holdings of land.

(B) It was most important to farmers living in states that had plenty of trees.

(D) The majority of farmers did not need the extra 160 acres it provided.

KEY:

CBACB ACBCB DDADB ABBCD ADBAA DCABC CCBAC BDADB AADBB BADBC
BCDBC ADCCB CACDC DBDCB BDADB DBDAA CADCD CBDBC
BDBCC ACAAC ABCDA AABDB BACCD BBBCB BDCCC ADBDA CBCDA ABACC

» Danh sách Tập tin đính kèm:

200205.rar

» Tin mới nhất:

Đề thi thử TOEFL ITP số 24 (ĐÁP ÁN CUỐI BÀI) (18/12/2024)
5 mẹo hướng dẫn làm bài thi toeic hiệu quả nhất (18/11/2024)
Đề thi thử TOEFL ITP số 23 (ĐÁP ÁN CUỐI BÀI) (17/11/2024)
Đề thi thử TOEFL ITP số 22 (ĐÁP ÁN CUỐI BÀI) (17/10/2024)
Đề thi thử TOEFL ITP số 21 (ĐÁP ÁN CUỐI BÀI) (09/09/2024)

» Các tin khác:

Đề thi thử TOEFL ITP số 12 (ĐÁP ÁN CUỐI BÀI) (16/03/2023)
5 mẹo hướng dẫn làm bài thi toeic hiệu quả nhất (13/03/2023)
MULTIPLE CHOICE FOR READING SKILL (14/01/2023)
Đề thi thử TOEFL ITP số 11 (ĐÁP ÁN CUỐI BÀI) (13/01/2023)
DIRECTION INFORMATION (17/12/2022)
COMMON EXPRESSIONS (17/12/2022)
Đề thi thử TOEFL ITP số 14 (ĐÁP ÁN CUỐI BÀI) (17/12/2022)
MESSAGES (17/11/2022)
ASKING & GIVING DIRECTION EXPRESSION (17/11/2022)
Đề thi thử TOEFL ITP số 13 (ĐÁP ÁN CUỐI BÀI) (07/11/2022)