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Đề thi thử TOEFL ITP số 26 (ĐÁP ÁN CUỐI BÀI)

2000年1月TOEFL试题

Section One: Listening Comprehension

1. (A) Spend more time working on calculus

problems.

(B) Talk to an advisor about dropping the

course.

(D) Ask the graduate assistant for help.

2. (A) Go home to get a book.

(B) Return a book to the library.

(D) Ask the librarian for help in finding a book.

3. (A) The woman could use his metric ruler.

(B) He'll finish taking the measurements for the

woman.

(D) He's faster at making the conversions than

the woman.

4. (A) She wants the man to attend the tournament with her.

(B) The tournament begins next week.

(D) She hopes the man will be able to play in

the tournament.

5. (A) The advisor has already approved the man's class schedule.

(B) The man should make an appointment to

see his advisor.

(D) The man should sign the document before

leaving.

6. (A) She didn't teach class today.

(B) She noticed that the students didn't do their

homework.

(D) She usually talks quietly.

7. (A) It started to rain when she was at the beach.

(B) She'd like the man to go to the beach with

her.

(D) She won't go to the beach tomorrow if it

rains.

8. (A) She disagrees with the man.

(B) She doesn't enjoy long speeches.

would be.

(D) She doesn't have a strong opinion about the

speaker

9. (A) He makes more money than the woman.

(B) He's satisfied with his job.

(D) He doesn't like working outdoors.

10. (A) He has already finished his report.

(B) He hasn't chosen a topic for his report.

enough.

(D) The woman will have time to finish her

report

11. (A) She'll speak to Larry about the problem.

(B) Larry has apologized to his roommate.

(D) Larry's roommate may be partly

responsible for the problem.

12. (A) The man should take his vacation

somewhere else.

(B) She doesn't know when her semester ends.

(D) The man may have to reschedule his trip.

13. (A) She didn't work hard enough on it

(B) It wasn't as good as she thought

(D) It was written according to the professor's

guidelines.

14. (A) Go to the ballet later in the year.

(B) Take ballet lessons with his sister.

(D) Get a ticket from his sister.

15. (A) Her hotel is located far from the conference center

(B) She didn't want to stay at the Gordon.

different hotel.

(D) She isn't sure how to get to the conference

center.

16. (A) Few readers agreed with his ideas.

(B) Very few people have read his article.

published.

(D) The woman doesn't fully understand the

article,

17. (A) He'll go with the woman to the next

hockey game.

(B) He missed the hockey game because he

was ill.

(D) He doesn't like to go to hockey games.

18. (A) Karen can drive to the airport on Tuesday.

(B) Karen can attend the meeting on Tuesday.

minute.

(D) Karen is returning from a trip on Tuesday.

19. (A) Call her after five.

(B) Make calls from her phone.

(D) Fix her phone.

20. (A) Look for more information for their

financial plan.

(B) Ask for more time to finish their financial

plan.

material available to them.

(D) Turn in their financial plan late.

21. (A) He doesn't want to drive anymore.

(B) The road to Bridgeport just opened.

(D) He has memorized every part of the drive.

22. (A) She doesn't have time to work in a garden.

(B) She'll consider the man's invitation.

(D) She was never formally invited to join a

gardening club.

23. (A) She's enjoying the music.

(B) The music will keep her awake.

(D) She would prefer a different style of music.

24. (A) His house can accommodate a meeting of the entire committee.

(B) The woman should find out when the

meeting starts.

(D) A smaller committee should be formed.

25. (A) She doesn't have time to collect the data.

(B) She prefers to wait until after the election.

(D) She'll send out the questionnaire in a

month.

26. (A) He's angry with the woman,

(B) He feels sick.

people.

(D) He prefers to study alone.

27. (A) It provides reading material for people

waiting to get in.

(B) He had to wait a long time for a seat there.

(D) The seats used there are uncomfortable.

28. (A) Students still have time to apply for a loan.

(B) Students must wait until next month to

submit loan applications.

her loan application was accepted.

(D) The woman should ask for an extension

on the application deadline.

29. (A) The casserole usually contains fewer

vegetables.

(B) She wishes she hadn't ordered the

casserole

vegetables.

(D) She doesn't usually eat in the cafeteria,

30. (A) Stay in the dormitory.

(B) Find out the cost of living in the dormitory.

(D) Move into an apartment with a roommate.

31. (A) They're classmates.

(B) They're roommates.

(D) They're lab partners.

32. (A) He couldn't decide on a topic for his paper.

(B) He thought his paper was late.

(D) He thought the woman had been ill.

33. (A) To find their way back to the nest.

(B) To locate plant fibers.

(D) To identify relatives.

34. (A) Visit his parents.

(B) Write a paper.

(D) Plan a family reunion.

35. (A) An alternative use of fuel oil.

(B) A way to make fuel oil less polluting.

oil.

(D) A new source of fuel oil

36. (A) She was doing research for a paper on it,

(B) She read a newspaper article about it.

(D) She heard about it in class.

37. (A) To produce a gas containing carbon and

hydrogen.

(B) To remove impurities from methanol.

(D) To prevent dangerous gases from forming

38. (A) It hasn't been fully tested.

(B) It's quite expensive.

(D) The gas it produces is harmful to the

environment.

39. (A) The influence of European popular music

on non-Western music.

(B) The musical background of the director of

the Broadway version of The Lion King

version of The Lion King.

(D) Differences between the music of the

film version and the Broadway version

of The Lion King.

40. (A) It was performed by the Zulu people of

South Africa.

(B) It developed outside the musical

traditions of Europe.

United States.

(D) The students heard it performed in

New York City.

41. (A) The director is of African ancestry.

(B) The director wanted the songs in the

Broadway version to be identical to the

songs in the film.

in Africa.

(D) The story takes place in Africa.

42. (A) A type of music that originated in

Indonesia.

(B) The meaning of non-English words used in

a song

(D) Popular rock and jazz music performed in

43. (A) How ancient philosophers measured the

distance between heavenly bodies.

(B) How ancient philosophers explained the

cause of an eclipse of the Moon.

Earth was a sphere.

(D) Why ancient philosophers thought the

Earth moved around the Sun.

44. (A) How the natural world was described

in Greek mythology.

(B) What they observed directly.

societies.

(D) Measurements made with scientific

instruments.

45. (A) They noticed an apparent change in the

position of the North Star.

(B) They observed eclipses at different times

of the year.

between heavenly bodies.

(D) They wanted to prove that the Earth was

flat.

46. (A) A place for making astronomical

observations.

(B) An instrument used for observing stars.

(D) The North Star.

47. (A) One of the students asked him about it in

the previous class.

(B) He read about it the previous day.

travel log

(D) The students were required to read about

it for that day's class

48. (A) That Peary bad announced his success

prematurely.

(B) That the investigation of Peary's

expedition wasn't thorough.

(D) That he had reached the pole before Peary

did.

49. (A) They talked to one of Peary's companions.

(B) They interviewed Peary.

photographs.

(D) They examined Peary's navigation tools,

50. (A) Dr. Cook's expedition.

(B) The conclusions of the Navigation

Foundation.

(D) Exploration of the South Pole.

Section Two: Structure and Written Expression

1. Amanda Way's career as a social reformer____ in 1851 when, at an antislavery meeting

in Indiana, she called for a state woman's rights convention.
(A) begin
(B) began
(C) have begun
(D) to have begun

2. The celesta, an orchestral percussion instrument, resembles___
(A) a small upright piano
(B) how a small upright piano
(C) a small upright piano is
(D) as a small upright piano

3. Thomas Paine, _____, wrote Common Sense, a pamphlet that identified the American colonies with the cause of liberty.
(A) writer of eloquent
(B) whose eloquent writing
(C) an eloquent writer
(D) writing eloquent

4. Although beavers rarely remain submerged for more than two minutes, they can stay underwater ___fifteen minutes before having to surface for air.
(A) as long
(B) as long as
(C) so long
(D) so long that

5. Protein digestion begins in the stomach ____ends in the small intestine.
(A) while
(B) and
(C) how
(D) because

6. When natural gas burns, its___ into atoms of carbon and hydrogen.
(A) hydrocarbon molecules, breaking up
(B) broke up by hydrocarbon molecules
(C) hydrocarbon molecules break up
(D) broken up hydrocarbon molecules

7. _____ ballet dancers learn five basic positions for the arms and feet.
(A) All of
(B) Of every
(C) All
(D) Every

8. Some colonies of bryozoans, small marine animals, form ___with trailing stems.
(A) creeping colonies
(B) which colonies creep
(C) creeping colonies are
(D) colonies creep

9. Ruth Bader Ginsburg argued six women's rights cases before the United States Supreme Court in the 1970's,____
(A) of five winning them
(B) five winning of them
(C) of them five winning
(D) winning five of them

10. Natural selection is defined as the process ___the course of evolution by preserving those traits best adapted for an organism's survival.
(A) to which directs
(B) of which directs it
(C) directs it
(D) that directs

11. ____ 363 miles between the cities of Albany and Buffalo in New York State, the Eric Canal helped link the Atlantic Ocean with the Great Lakes.
(A) The extension of
(B) The extension
(C) Extending
(D) Extends

12.The chief sources of B12,a water-soluble vitamin ____ stored in the body, include meat, milk and eggs.
(A) is not
(B) that is not
(C) not that is
(D) that not

13. ____ is rooted in experiments in iron and steel conducted in the nineteenth century.
(A) While the history of twentieth-century architecture
(B) The history of twentieth-century architecture
(C) That the history of twentieth-century architecture
(D) Both twentieth-century architecture and its history

14.The primary source of energy for tropical cyclones is the latent heat released when ____
(A) does water vapor condense
(B) condensed water vapor
(C) water vapor condenses
(D) the condensation of water vapor

15. Manufacturing is Canada's most important economic activity, ____17 percent of the workforce.
(A) engages
(B) and to engage
(C) that it engage
(D) engaging

16. The outer layer of the heart, called the pericardium, forms a sac in what the

A B C D

heart lies.

17. Wood from the ash tree becomes extremely flexibly when it is exposed to steam.

A B C D

18. The ability to talk is one of the skill that make humans different from the

A B C

rest of the animal world.

19. In plane geometry, the sum of the internal angles of any triangle

A B C

has always equal to 180 degrees.

D
20. Polar bears are bowlegged and pigeon-toed, adaptations that enable this

A B

massive animals to maintain their balance as they walk.

C D

21. Caves are formed by the chemical or action mechanical of water on soluble

A B

rock, by volcanic activity, and by earthquakes.

C D

22. Celery, an edible plant is having long stalks topped with feathery leaves,

A B C

grows best in cool weather.

23. The first fiction writer in the United States to achieve international fame

A B C

was Washington Irving, who wrote many stories, included " Rip Van Winkle" and

"The Legend of Sleepy Hollow".

24. Three fundamental aspects of forest conversation are the protection of

immature trees, the use of proper harvesting methods, and provide for an

B C

environment that supports reproduction.

25. For each enzyme reaction there is an optimum temperature which maximum

A B C

efficiency is achieved.

26. Adolescence is a transitional stage in human development from the beginning

A B

of puberty to the attainment of the emotion, social, and physical maturity of

adulthood.

27. The people native to the northwest coast of North American have long

be known for wood carvings of stunning beauty and extraordinary quality.

B C D

28. Colonial efforts to manufacture glass at Jamestown---- and later attempts

A B

near Philadelphia and Boston---failed despite the abundant of fuel and good raw

materials.

29. The orbit of a celestial body is usually in the shape of ellipse.

A B C D

30. Chicago is the third largest publishing center in the United States,

A B C

exceeding only by New York City and San Francisco.

D
31. North American bison differ from domestic cattle in have 14 rather than 13

A B C D

pairs of ribs.

32. Female sea turtles, before laying her eggs, swim as much as 2,000 kilometers

A B

to return to the beaches where they themselves were hatched.

C D

33. Water is the only substance that occur at ordinary temperatures in all three

A B C

states of matter: solid, liquid and gas.

34. Despite the growth of manufacturing and other industries, the economy

A B

of the state of Texas has remained heavily dependence on oil and gas.

C D

35. Lyndon B. Johnson was the only United States President who oath of office was

A B C

administered by a woman Judge Sarah Tilghman Hughes.

36. It took more than fourteen years to carve the faces of four United States

A B C

Presidents into the granite cliffs to Mount Rushmore, South Dakota.

D
37.Charles Bullfinch was the architect who design the original red brick core of

A B C

the State House in Boston.

38.Rarely has a technological development had as great an impact on as much

A B

aspects of social, economic, and cultural development as the growth of

C D

electronics.

39. Lowell, Massachusetts, known as the "Spindle City" since 1822 when its first

A B

textile mills were built, attracted worldwide attention as textile center.

C D

40.Strange Victory, Sara Teas dale's smallest and most perfect collection

A B

of poems, appear in print in 1933.

C D

Section Three: Reading Comprehension

Questions 1-10

As Philadelphia grew from a small town into a city in the first half of the eighteenth

century, it became an increasingly important marketing center for a vast and growing

agricultural hinterland. Market days saw the crowded city even more crowded, as

line fanners from within a radius of 24 or more kilometers brought their sheep, cows, pigs,

(5) vegetables, cider, and other products for direct sale to the townspeople. The High Street

Market was continuously enlarged throughout the period until 1736, when it reached

from Front Street to Third. By 1745 New Market was opened on Second Street

between Pine and Cedar. The next year the Callowhill Market began operation.

Along with market days, the institution of twice-yearly fairs persisted in

(10) Philadelphia even after similar trading days had been discontinued in other colonial

cities. The fairs provided a means of bringing handmade goods from outlying places to

would-be buyers in the city. Linens and stockings from Germantown, for example,

were popular items.

Auctions were another popular form of occasional trade. Because of the

(15) competition, retail merchants opposed these as well as the fairs. Although

governmental attempts to eradicate fairs and auctions were less than successful, the

ordinary course of economic development was on the merchants' side, as increasing

business specialization became the order of the day. Export merchants became

differentiated from their importing counterparts, and specialty shops began to appear in

(20) addition to general stores selling a variety of goods.

One of the reasons Philadelphia's merchants generally prospered was because the

surrounding area was undergoing tremendous economic and demographic growth.

They did their business, after all, in the capital city of the province. Not only did they

cater to the governor and his circle, but citizens from all over the colony came to the

(25) capital for legislative sessions of the assembly and council and the meetings of the

courts of justice.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Philadelphia's agriculture importance

(B) Philadelphia's development as a marketing

center

(D) The administration of the city of

Philadelphia

2. It can be inferred from the passage that new

markets opened in Philadelphia because

(A) they provided more modem facilities than

older markets

(B) the High Street Market was forced to close

growing population

(D) farmers wanted markets that were closer

to the farms.

3. The word "hinterland " in line 3 is closest in

meaning to

(A) tradition

(B) association

(D) region

4. The word "it" in line 6 refers to

(A) the crowded city

(B) a radius

(D) the period

5. The word "persisted" in line 9 is closest in

meaning to

(A) returned

(B) started

(D) continued

6. According to the passage, fairs in Philadelphia

were held

(A) on the same day as market says

(B) as often as possible

(D) whenever the government allowed it

7. It can be inferred that the author mentions

"Linens and stockings" in line 12 to show that

they were items that

(A) retail merchants were not willing to sell

(B) were not available in the stores in

Philadelphia

in Philadelphia

(D) could easily be transported

8. The word "eradicate" in line 16 is closest in

meaning to

(A) eliminate

(B) exploit

(D) operate

9. What does the author mean by stating in line 17 that "economic development was on the

merchants' side "?

(A) Merchants had a strong impact on

economic expansion.

(B) Economic forces allowed merchants to

prosper.

achieve economic independence

(D) Specialty shops near large markets were

more likely to be economically

successful.

10. The word "undergoing" in line 22 is closest in meaning to

(A) requesting

(B) experiencing

(D) including

Questions 11-22

Aviculturists, people who raise birds for commercial sale, have not yet learned

how to simulate the natural incubation of parrot eggs in the wild. They continue

to look for better ways to increase egg production and to improve chick survival rates.

line When parrots incubate their eggs in the wild, the temperature and humidity of the

(5) nest are controlled naturally. Heat is transferred from the bird's skin to the top portion

of the eggshell, leaving the sides and bottom of the egg at a cooler temperature. This

temperature gradient may be vital to successful hatching. Nest construction can

contribute to this temperature gradient Nests of loosely arranged sticks, rocks, or dirt

are cooler in temperature at the bottom where the egg contacts the nesting material.

(10) Such nests also act as humidity regulators by allowing rain to drain into the bottom

sections of the nest so that the eggs are not in direct contact with the water. As the

water that collects in the bottom of the nest evaporates, the water vapor rises and is

heated by the incubating bird, which adds significant humidity to the incubation

environment

(15) In artificial incubation programs, aviculturists remove eggs from the nests of parrots

and incubate them under laboratory conditions. Most commercial incubators heat the

eggs fairly evenly from top to bottom, thus ignoring the bird's method of natural

incubation, and perhaps reducing the viability and survivability of the hatching chicks.

When incubators are not used, aviculturists sometimes suspend wooden boxes outdoors

(20) to use as nests in which to place eggs. In areas where weather can become cold after

eggs are laid, it is very important to maintain a deep foundation of nesting material to

act as insulator against the cold bottom of the box. If eggs rest against the wooden

bottom in extremely cold weather conditions, they can become chilled to a point where

the embryo can no longer survive. Similarly, these boxes should be protected from

(25) direct sunlight to avoid high temperatures that are also fatal to the growing embryo.

Nesting material should be added in sufficient amounts to avoid both extreme

temperature situations mentioned above and assure that the eggs have a soft, secure

place to rest.

11. What is the main idea of the passage?

(A) Nesting material varies according to the

parrots' environment.

(B) Humidity is an important factor in

incubating parrots' eggs.

nest box for parrots.

(D) Wild parrots' nests provide information

useful for artificial incubation.

12. The word "They" in line 2 refers to

(A) aviculturists

(B)birds

(C)eggs

(D) rates

13. According to paragraph 2, when the

temperature of the sides and bottom of the egg

are cooler than the top, then

(A) there may be a good chance for

successful incubation

(B) the embryo will not develop normally

a new position.

(D) the incubation process is slowed down

14. According to paragraph 2, sticks, rocks, or dirt are used to

(A) soften the bottom of the nest for the newly

hatched chick

(B) hold the nest together

the nest

(D) make the nest bigger

15. According to paragraph 2, the construction of the nest allows water to

(A) provide a beneficial source of humidity

in the nest

(B) loosen the materials at the bottom of the

nest

(D) touch the bottom of the eggs

16. All of the following are part of a parrot's

incubation method EXCEPT

(A) heating the water vapor as it rises from the

bottom of the nest

(B) arranging nesting material at the bottom of

the nest

of the eggshell

(D) maintaining a constant temperature on the

eggshell

17. The word "suspend" in line 19 is closest in

meaning to

(A) build

(B) paint

(C)hang

(D) move

18. The word "fatal" in line 25 is closest in

meaning to

(A) close

(B) deadly

(D) hot

19. The word "secure" in line 27 is closest in

meaning to

(A) fiesh

(B)diy

(C)safe

(D)warm

20. According to paragraph 3, a deep foundation of nesting material provides

(A) a constant source of humidity

(B) a strong nest box

(D) protection against cold weather

21. Which of the following is a problem with

commercial incubators?

(A) They lack the natural temperature changes

of the outdoors.

(B) They are unable to heat the eggs evenly

same way the parent bird does.

(D) They are expensive to operate.

22. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?

(A) Aviculturists (line I)

(B) Gradient (line 8)

(D) Embryo (line 24)

Questions 23-33

The mineral particles found in soil range in size from microscopic clay particles

to large boulders. The most abundant particles—sand, silt, and clay—are the focus

of examination in studies of soil texture. Texture is the term used to describe the

line composite sizes of particles in a soil sample, typically several representative handfuls.

(5) To measure soil texture, the sand, silt, and clay particles are sorted out by size and

weight. The weights of each size are then expressed as a percentage of the sample

weight.

In the field, soil texture can be estimated by extracting a handful of sod and

squeezing the damp soil into three basic shapes; (1) cast, a lump formed by squeezing

(10) a sample in a clenched fist; (2) thread, a pencil shape formed by rolling soil between

the palms; and (3) ribbon, a flatfish shape formed by squeezing a small sample between

the thumb and index finger. The behavioral characteristics of the soil when molded into

each of these shapes, if they can be formed at all, provides the basis for a general

textural classification. The behavior of the soil in the hand test is determined by the

(15) amount of clay in the sample. Clay particles are highly cohesive, and when dampened,

behave as a plastic. Therefore the higher the clay content in a sample, the more refined

and durable the shapes into which it can be molded.

Another method of determining soil texture involves the use of devices called

sediment sieves, screens built with a specified mesh size. When the soil is filtered

(20) through a group of sieves, each with a different mesh size, the particles become

grouped in corresponding size categories. Each category can be weighed to make a

textural determination. Although sieves work well for silt, sand, and larger particles,

they are not appropriate for clay particles. Clay is far too small to sieve accurately;

therefore, in soils with a high proportion of clay, the fine particles are measured on the

(25) basis of their settling velocity when suspended in water .Since clays settle so slowly,

they are easily segregated from sand and silt. The water can be drawn off and

evaporated, leaving a residue of clay, which can be weighed.

23. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Characteristics of high quality soil

(B) Particles typically found in most soils

texture of soil

(D) Ways to determine the texture of soil

24. The author mentions "several representative

handrals" in line 4 in order to show

(A) the range of soil samples

(B) the process by which soil is weighed

sample

(D) how small soil particles are

25. The phrase "sorted out" in line 5 is closest in

meaning to

(A) mixed

(B) replaced

(D) separated

26. It can be inferred mat the names of the three

basic shapes mentioned in paragraph 2 reflect

(A) the way the soil is extracted

(B) the results of squeezing the soil

handful

(D) the difficulty of forming different

shapes

27. The word "dampened" in line 15 is closest in

meaning to

(A) damaged

(B) stretched

(D) examined

28. Which of the following can be inferred from

the passage about a soil sample with little or

no clay in it?

(A) It is not very heavy.

(B) It may not hold its shape when molded.

(D) Its texture cannot be classified

29. The word "they" in line 23 refers to

(A) categories

(B) sieves

(D) clay particles

30. It can be inferred from the passage that the

sediment sieve has an advantage over the hand

test in determining soil texture because

(A) using the sieve takes less time

(B) the sieve can measure clay

(D) the sieve allows for a more exact

measure

31. During the procedure described in paragraph

3, when clay particles are placed into water

they

(A) stick to the sides of the water container

(B) take some time to sink to the bottom

(D) dissolve quickly

32. The word "fine" in line 24 is closest in

meaning to

(A) tiny

(B) many

(D) various

33. All of the following words are defined in the

passage EXCEPT

(A) texture (line 3)

(B) ribbon (line 11)

(D) evaporated (line 27)

Questions 34-43

A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker.

The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information

by use of language, communicating with a group or an individual, and specialized

line communication through performance. A person conveys thoughts and ideas through

(5) choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by

the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech rhythms that are

flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the

utterance. When speaking before a group, a person's tone may indicate unsureness or

fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and

(10) feelings over and above the words chosen, or may belie them. Here the conversant's

tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of

concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are .usually

discernible by the acute listener. Public performance is a manner of communication

that is highly specialized with its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and /or

(15) gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in the case of singing, the music, in

combination with the performer's skills, personality, and ability to create empathy will

determine the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication.

Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of

others, and emotional health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is

(20) confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few

personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue to the facade or mask of that person,

for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident front. How a speaker

perceives the listener's receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation

can drastically alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the

(25) speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free and melodic sounds of the

happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic qualities

of the depressed

34. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The function of the voice in performance

(B) The connection between voice and

personality

(D) The production of speech

35. What does the author mean by staring that, "At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen"

(lines 9-10)?

(A) Feelings are expressed with different words

than ideas are.

(B) The tone of voice can cany information

beyond the meaning of words.

communication.

(D) Feelings are more difficult to express than

ideas.

36. The word "Here" in line 10 refers to

(A) interpersonal interactions

(B) the tone

(D) words chosen

37. The word "derived" in line 15 is closest in

meaning to

(A) discussed

(B) prepared

(D) obtained

38. Why does the author mention "artistic,

political, or pedagogic communication" in line

17?

(A) As examples of public performance

(B) As examples of basic styles of

communication

(D) To introduce the idea of self-image

39. According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice, may be an indication of a person's

(A) general physical health

(B) personality

(D) vocal quality

40. According to the passage, an overconfident

front may hide

(A) hostility

(B) shyness

(D) strength

41. The word "drastically" in line 24 is closest in

meaning to

(A) frequently

(B) exactly

(D) easily

42. The word "evidenced" in line 25 is closest in

meaning to

(A) questioned

(B) repeated

(D) exaggerated

43. According to the passage, what does a

constricted and harsh voice indicate?

(A) Lethargy

(B) Depression

(D) Anger

Questions 44-50

As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United

States increased The frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans

lived in towns and cities. Industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic

line life combined with a new emphasis upon credentials and expertise to make schooling

(5) increasingly important for economic and social mobility. Increasingly, too, schools

were viewed as the most important means of integrating immigrants into American

society.

The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn

of the century coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal

(10) schooling. By 1920 schooling to age fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most

states, and the school year was greatly lengthened. Kindergartens, vacation schools,

extracurricular activities, and vocational education and counseling extended the

influence of public schools over the lives of students, many of whom in the larger

industrial cities were the children of immigrants. Classes for adult immigrants were

(15) sponsored by public schools, corporations, unions, churches, settlement houses, and

other agencies.

Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should

suit the needs of specific populations. Immigrant women were one such population.

Schools tried to educate young women so they could occupy productive places in the

(20) urban industrial economy, and one place many educators considered appropriate for

women was the home.

Although looking after the house and family was familiar to immigrant women,

American education gave homemaking a new definition. In preindustrial economies,

homemaking had meant the production as well as the consumption of goods, and it

(25) commonly included income-producing activities both inside and outside the home,

in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States, however,

overproduction rather than scarcity was becoming a problem. Thus, the ideal American

homemaker was viewed as a consumer rather than a producer. Schools trained women

to be consumer homemakers cooking, shopping, decorating, and caring for children

(30) "efficiently" in their own homes, or if economic necessity demanded, as employees

in the homes of others. Subsequent reforms have made these notions seem quite

out-of-date.

44. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one

important factor in the increasing importance

of education in the United States was

(A) the growing number of schools in frontier

communities

(B) an increase in the number of trained

teachers

schools

(D) the increased urbanization of the entire

country

45. The word "means" in line 6 is closest in

meaning to

(A) advantages

(B) probability

(D) qualifications

46. The phrase "coincided with" in line 9 is

closest in meaning to

(A) was influenced by

(B) happened at the same time as

(D) ensured the success of

47. According to the passage, one important

change in United States education by the

1920's was that

(A) most places required children to attend

school

(B) the amount of time spent on formal

education was limited

nontraditional education

(D) adults and children studied in the same

classes

48. Vacation schools and extracurricular activities

are mentioned in lines 11-12 to illustrate

(A) alternatives to formal education

provided by public schools

(B) the importance of educational changes

immigrants to their programs.

(D) the increased impact of public schools on

students.

49. According to the passage, early-twentieth century

education reformers believed that

(A) different groups needed different kinds of

education

(B) special programs should be set up in

frontier communities to modernize them

damaged educational progress

(D) more women should be involved in

education and industry

50. The word "it" in line 24 refers to

(A) consumption

(B) production

(D) education

KEY

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BACBB CCADD CBBCD DBBDB ABDCC CBCDD CAADB DBBDD
BCDCD CBABB DAACA DCBCD CADAD BCBBD BADBB ADABB CCDDC BADAC

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